Sunday, January 6, 2008

PSYC 289

1. If you could tape-record your thoughts, you would find
a. a system of hierarchically organized cognitions
b. one central thought and multiple, related subsidiary thoughts
c. an endless flow of ideas that constantly shifts and changesd. an organized system of parallel thoughts
2. In general, research into circadian rhythms has found that overall level of alertness and body
temperature are
a. negatively correlated
b. positively correlated in females and negatively correlated in males
c. positively correlated in males and negatively correlated in females
d. positively correlated
3. Which of the following appears to be the sequence of events associated with resetting one's
biological clock?
a. The hypothalamus signals the thalamus, which in turn sends signals to the medial
forebrain bundle.
b. The thalamus signals the optic chiasm, which in turn causes a release of the
hormone philoxin, which activates the renal gland.
c. The suprachiasmatic nucleus signals the pineal gland, which in turn secretes the
hormone melatonin.
d. The superior colliculus sigQals the thalamus, which stimulates Broca's area.
4. Felicia is a participant in a study on stress reactions. Which of the following instruments would
MOST likely be used to measure her muscle tension?
a. electromyograph
b. circadiometer
c. electroencephalograph
d. polygraph
5. Victoria is listening to a lecture in a hot lecture hall, late on a Friday afternoon. She starts to feel
drowsy, and then falls into a light sleep. If her brain wave patterns were being monitored they
would show a shift from
a. alpha waves to beta waves and finally to delta waves
b. theta waves to beta waves and finally to alpha waves
c. beta waves to alpha waves and finally to theta waves
d. beta waves to theta waves and finally to alpha waves
6. Dr. Everett is observing Robert in a sleep lab. Dr. Everett intends to wake Robert up each time he
begins REM sleep. Based on the electroencephalograph (EEG) recordings, Robert should be
awakened each time the EEG shows
a. alpha wave activity
b. low-voltage, high frequency beta waves
c. the presence of sleep spindles
d. theta wave activity
7. "Manny got out of bed and began doing calisthenics during REM sleep, probably because he was
dreaming about boot camp. " What is WRONG with this statement?
a. Sleep is a relaxed condition of the body and, as such, precludes physical activity.
b. Research shows that no dreaming takes place in REM sleep.
c. Research shows that we are virtually paralyzed in REM sleep.
d. Manny was never in boot camp so he is not likely to be dreaming about it.
8. Mackenzie was in a car accident, and when she hit her head the ascending fibers in her reticular
activating system were damaged. With this type of injury it is likely that Mackenzie will
a. no longer experience REM sleep
b. be in a coma
c. not be able to sleep for more than a few minutes at a time
d. no longer experience Stage 2 or Stage 3 sleep
9. For the past month Mitchell has had difficulty falling asleep a.t night. Even though he goes to bed
at his usual time, he lays awake for several hours before he finally drifts off to sleep. As a result,
Mitchell has only been getting 5 to 6 hours of sleep, instead of the 8 hours he is used to. Mitchell is
likely to find that his lack of sleep leads to
a. the inability to solve complex problems
b. impaired attention, especially on monotonous task
c. hallucinations and general disorientation
d. night terrors when he actually does fall asleep
10. Sheri has no trouble falling asleep, but she has difficulty remaining asleep. Sheri is suffering from
a. msomnla
b. narcolepsy
c. sleep apnea
d. pseudoinsomnia
11. Sleep apnea is characterized by
a. a sudden, irresistible urge to sleep during normal waking hours
b. a reflexive gasping for air during sleep c. an extremely low rate of REM .
d. night terrors
12. According to Freud, a sexually frustrated person would probably have highly erotic dreams
because, according to him, the principal purpose of a dream is
a. sexual gratification
b. conflict resolution
c. wish fulfillment
d. the repression of unconscious desires
13. Danielle had a dream in which she was playing rummy with an elephant wearing suspenders. The
next instant, the elephant had changed into one of her grade school teachers and they were
watching a purple sunset over a red ocean. According to the activation synthesis model of
dreaming, the sudden bizarre changes in settings that took place in Danielle's dream represent
a. an interpretation of random neuron activity in lower brain centers
b. the manifest content of the dream
c. the latent content of the dream
d. an attempt to work through problems she is currently experiencing in her life
14. The role-playing theory of hypnosis offered by Barber and Spanos suggests that the hypnotized
a. actually fakes the hypnotic state
b. enters into a trance and acts out suggestions
c. knows that he or she is only pretending
d. is in a normal state but acts out the role of a hypnotized person
15. While Nicholas was hypnotized he was able to endure painful jaw surgery without any anesthesia.
This could be taken as support for the view that hypnosis
a. causes people to act out a role
b. is the same as REM-sleep
c. is the same as slow-wave sleep
d. creates a dissociation in conscious awareness
16. Opiates such as morphine and heroin have a capacity to
a. alleviate pain
b. improve memory
c. enhance sensory awareness
d. do all of these things
17. Adam has just consumed a substance that provides him with increased alertness and energy, along
with reduced fatigue. However, it also makes him more talkative, increases his blood pressure,
reduces his appetite, and makes him restless. Adam has likely ingested
a. THC
b. an amphetamine
c. LSD
d. a sedative
18. Which of the following does NQI belong with the others?
a. cocaIne
b. LSD
c. mescaline
d. psilocybin
19. Jasmine used to feel quite giddy and light-headed after drinking a single glass of wine. Now she
finds she can drink three glasses of wine before she feels giddy. This suggests that Jasmine
a. has developed an alcohol dependency
b. is experiencing the effects of alcohol withdrawal
c. has become alcohol intolerant
d. has developed a drug tolerance for alcohol
20. One state that has a "right to die" law allows terminally ill patients to take an overdose of
barbiturate drugs. When patients take the high dosage of drugs allowed they should expect
a. that respiration will stop, producing a coma and eventual death
b. several severe cortical seizures resulting in brain death in less than five minutes
c. to experience a fatal heart attack or stroke within 30 minutes of taking the drugs
d. damage to the liver causing death within 48 hours
21. Samantha likes to drink three glasses of wine before she goes to bed. She claims that the wine
helps her unwind, and she sleeps better. Based on research into the effects of alcohol, Samantha
should be aware that when she drinks in this way she
a. spends too much time in REM sleep and not enough time in slow-wave sleep
b. actually spends less time in both REM sleep and slow-wave sleep
c. spends too much time in slow-wave sleep and not enough time in REM sleep
d. is more likely to experience either nightmares or night terrors during sleep
22. Which of the following statements about dreams is MOST accurate?
a. Only about 75 percent of all people dream.
b. The reason we do not remember our dreams is that the content of the dream is
c. People cannot remember their dreams because of too much time passing between
when they dreamed and when they try to recall the dream.
d. Most dreams people can remember deal with sexually oriented topics.
23. Morgan had a dream in which his boss appeared at his front door, wearing polka-dot pajamas, and
asked to borrow a xylophone. Morgan is convinced the dream represents an unconscious desire to
quit his current job. According to Freud, Morgan's unconscious desire to quit his current job would
a. the latent content of the dream
b. the manifest content of the dream
c. an interpretation of random neural activity in lower brain centers
d. an attempt to work through problems he is currently experiencing in his life
24. Which of the following statements regarding the debate over whether alcoholism is a disease is
LEAST accurate?
a. One can inherit agenetic vulnerability to alcoholism.
b. Alcoholism disrupts a variety of vital functions.
c. More research is needed to determine whether or not alcoholism is a disease.
d. The question of whether alcoholism is a disease is a matter of definition.
25. Which of the following are generally associated with non-REM sleep?
a. rapid eye movements
b. dreams
c. nightmares
d. night terrors

26. The major difference between a CS and a UCS is
a. the order in which they are presented
b. that one reliably elicits the response of interest prior to conditioning while the
other does not
c. that during conditioning the response to one increases while the response to the
other decreases
d. the strength of the response that each stimulus elicits
27. A woman reported feeling "weak in the knees" whenever she smelled cigarette smoke and
Beemans gum because of the association of these smells with her first love. In this example, the
combined smell of cigarettes and Beemans gum would be
a. a conditioned response
b. an unconditioned response
c. a conditioned stimulus
d. an unconditioned stimulus
28. Some studies have suggested that allergic reactions and the growth of drug tolerances can both be
influenced by
a. instinctive drift
b. classical conditioning
c. instrumental conditioning
d. sensory adaptation
29. On Tuesday morning, Chloe prepared her typical breakfast of corn flakes with milk and a cup of
coffee. However, instead of having grapefruit with her breakfast, she tried eating guava for the first
time. Later she became extremely ill. If her illness causes her to develop a conditioned response to
one of her breakfast items, the conditioned response will most likely be to
a. guava, because it was a novel stimulus
b. milk, because the milk may have been sour
c. grapefruit, because that was the one thing missing from her typical breakfast
d. coffee, because coffee is a stimulant
30. Mariah developed a fear of the water when she fell off a river raft last summer. This year she took
swimming lessons and thought she had finally overcome her fear of water. She was eagerly
looking forward to an upcoming rafting trip, however, as soon as she stepped onto the raft she was
instantly terrified again. This illustrates the classical conditioning process known as
a. extinction
b. second-order conditioning
c. stimulus generalization
d. spontaneous recovery
31. A dog is first conditioned to salivate to a tone. Then, a light is paired with the tone for a number of
trials. Finally, the light is presented alone, and the dog responds. This procedure is known as
a. chaining
b. higher-order conditioning
c. compound conditioning
d. sensory preconditioning
32. You have conditioned a fear response to a lOOO-Hz tone. Now the tone is paired with a green light.
Later, the green light alone elicits fear. This is an example of
a. stimulus generalization
b. instinctive drift
c. a discriminated conditioned response
d. higher-order conditioning
33. Cassie asked her father for a candy bar at the grocery store, and her father bought her the candy
bar .If Cassie asks for more candy bars in the future, the candy bar has acted as
a. a discriminative stimulus
b. a reinforcer
c. a conditioned response
d. a conditioned stimulus
34. The rules that determine whether responses lead to the presentation of a reinforcer are called
a. reinforcement contingencies
b. stimulus contiguities
c. schedules of reinforcement
d. antecedents
35. Summer is teaching herself to type using a computer software package. The first time she used the
program, the sentences she was supposed to type scrolled very slowly across the computer screen
and when she finished the computer played a clapping sound. However, now she has to type the
material faster than her previous "best time " before the computer plays the clapping sound. This
computer software package incorporates
a. classical conditioning
b. modeling
c. shaping
d. negative reinforcement
36. When reinforcement for a behavior is removed, the consequence will be
a. an immediate weakening and eventual disappearance of the behavior
b. a brief increase in the frequency with which the behavior is performed, followed
by the weakening and eventual disappearance of the behavior
c. the emergence of superstitious behavior designed to reinstitute the reinforcement
d. unpredictable unless more information about the nature of the behavior is provided
37. Julie has a desk right next to her manager's office. Whenever her manager is in his office, Julie
makes sure that she works hard at her computer. However, if the manager is away from his office
she often works much more slow ly and takes more breaks. In this case, the manager being in his
office is acting as
a. a positive reinforcer for working hard
b. a negative reinforcer for working hard
(C:'\ a discriminative stimulus for working hard
"d; an unconditioned stimulus for working hard
38. The basic principles of gradual acquisition, extinction, stimulus generalization, and discrimination
a. to both classical and instrumental conditioning
b. only to classical conditioning
c. only to instrumental conditioning
d. to learning by animals, but not to learning by people .
39. Food is an example of ; praise is an example of .
a. a primary reinforcer; a primary reinforcer
b. a primary reinforcer; a secondary reinforcer
c. a secondary reinforcer; a secondary reinforcer
d. a secondary reinforcer; a primary reinforcer
40. Raul's parents make certain they thank Raul every time he clears the dishes from the table without
being asked. Sadie's parents try to remember to thank Sadie every time she clears the table without
being asked, but about half the time they forget. Based on principles of operant conditioning, you
should predict that
a. both children's table clearing will be equally resistant to extinction
b. Sadie's table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Raul's
c. Raul's table clearing will be more resistant to extinction than Sadie's
d. Raul will develop stimulus generalization, and Sadie will develop stimulus
41. Your teenaged daughter has not cleaned her room in a month. You go in and begin yelling at her to
clean her room. She begins to clean up, and you stop yelling. Your daughter's cleaning behavior
can be viewed as responding to
a. classical conditioning
b. positive reinforcement
c. punishers
d. negative reinforcement
42. Acquiring a behavior that prevents the occurrence of an aversive event is
a. escape learning
b. negative reinforcement
c. punishment learning
d. avoidance learning
43. When Jackie watches slasher movies, she covers her eyes when the blood starts to splatter. When
Clarice watches slasher movies, she covers her eyes as soon as she hears ominous music start to
play. Jackie's response is consistent with , while Clarice's response is consistent with
a. escape responding; avoidance responding
b. avoidance responding; escape responding
c. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement
d. classical conditioning; operant conditioning
44. Negative reinforcement the rate of a response; punishment the rate of a
a. increases; decreases
b. decreases;increases
c. increases; increases
d. decreases; decreases
45. You eat a new food and that night become ill with nausea and vomiting. Later you experience
nausea whenever you taste or smell the new food. Why did you not associate your nausea with the
cues of the room, the people present, the bathroom, and so on ?
a. You were biologically predisposed to associate taste and nausea.
b. The nontaste cues were too weak.
c. The taste cues were more immediate.
d. There was less contiguity for the other cues.
46. According to Rescorla, the single best way to ensure a strong CR is to arrange that the CS
a. remains constantly present throughout training
b. be one that is well above the absolute threshold of the animal being trained
c. sometimes occurs when the UCS is not present
d. is the most predictive signal for the UCS
47. Research on conditioning generally has demonstrated the importance of " but findings
regarding the biological constraints on conditioning have shown that is also very
a. nature; nurture
b. nurture, nature
c. heredity; biology
d. instincts; training
48. Harold begins to chew his fingernails every time his teacher enters the classroom. In this case, the
antecedent is
a. the teacher entering the classroom
b. the fear associated with the teacher
c. anticipated punishment
d. chewing the fingernails
49. Marvin creates a television ad that alternates between images of garbage dumps and people
drinking in a bar. He is hoping that people who watch the ad will develop negative feelings toward
drinking after seeing these ads. In Marvin's ad the conditioned stimulus would be
a. the images of garbage dumps
b. people's feelings of disgust when viewing garbage
c. the images of people drinking in a bar
d. the feelings people have toward drinking before they see the ad
50. Research into signal relations, response-outcome relations, and observational learning all
a. the importance of evolutionary adaptations in learning
b. the limitations of using basic conditioning procedures in everyday situations
c. the distinction between acquisition of behavior and the performance of behavior
d. the role of cognitive processes in learning
51. Curtis is working on a presentation and doesn't hear the phone ringing in the background. Later, he
is surprised to find three phone messages have come in for him, because he was totally unaware
that the phone had even rung. Incidents of this type would lend support to
a. a late-selection model of attention
b. a proactive model of attention
c. an early-selection model of attention
d. an acoustic-blocking model of attention
52. Xavier was given a list of words as part of a memory test that included: dog, pail, and hate. Later,
he recalled these words as: "log, whale, and late." Xavier's errors in recall suggest that he had
encoded the original word list
a. phonemic ally
b. structurally
c. semantically
d. retroactively
53. Taryn was given a list of words as part of a memory test that included: "dog, pail, and hate." Later,
she recalled these words as: "pup, bucket, and loathe." Taryn's errors in recall suggest that she had
encoded the original word list
a. proactively
b. semantically
c. phonemic ally
d. structurally
54. Two students took a memory test. Twenty nouns were shown sequentially on a TV monitor .
Mallory tried to think of rhymes for each word as it appeared on the monitor. Bailey tried to think
of ways each word could be used in a sentence. Based on Craik and Lockhart's levels-ofprocessing
theory , you should predict that
a. Mallory will have better recall of the words because she used semantic encoding
b. both students should have equivalent recall of the words
c. Bailey will have better recall of the words because she used semantic encoding
d. Bailey will have poorer recall of the words because she used structural encoding
55. The Atkinson-Shiffrin memory model proposes that memory has
a. sensory , short-term, medium-term, and long-term stores
b. short-, medium-, and long-term stores
c. four different memory stores
d. sensory , short-term, and long-term stores
56. As Art was walking out the door of his apartment, he was quickly running through a mental list of
all the things he was supposed to take with him. He went through the complete list of items four or
five times, just to make sure he hadn't forgotten anything. Based on Baddeley's model of working
memory , Art was utilizing
a. the visuospatial sketchpad to arrange all the information he needed
b. the rehearsal loop to temporarily hold his list of essential items
c. the executive control system to juggle all the information he needed to consider
d. his prospective memory to remember the actions he still needed to perform
57. In Serena's law class they are discussing high-profile cases, and when they get to the 0. I. Simpson
case, Serena suddenly has a vivid memory of watching the white Bronco driving slowly down the
freeway. She feels like she can recall every detail of that night, right down to the snacks she and
her roommate were eating. This would be an example of
a. a flashbulb memory
b. sensory memory
c. procedural memory
d. an implicit memory
58. Maria is trying to recall the names of all 48 of the contiguous United States. She begins by naming
the New England states, followed by the mid-Atlantic states, the states in the Southeast, the
Midwest, the Southwest, and finally the states in the Pacific Northwest. Maria's pattern of recall
illustrates the concept of
a. the primacy effect
b. levels-of- processing
c. the serial-position effect
d. clustering
59. Ten-year-old Kylee is trying to remember the capital of North Carolina during a game of "Where
Are you?" Her father tells her to think of the letter "R," and she quickly comes up with Raleigh. In
this case, Kylee's memory was assisted using
a. an effective retrieval cue
b. semantic network activation
c. the method of loci
d. transfer-appropriate processing
60. Investigators were asking employees at a construction site what they were doing last Tuesday, at
ten o'clock. Some of the workers were having a difficult time remembering details until the
foreman reminded them that the foundations for the building were poured that morning. If the
workers are now able to recall details of their actions, the foreman has been able to
a. prime the workers' conceptual hierarchies
b. successfully reinstate the context
c. effectively overcome proactive interference
d. activate transfer-appropriate processing
61. Gregory is telling Molly a joke when she suddenly stops him and tells him that she told him that
same joke last week. In this example, Gregory
a. has apparently made a source-monitoring error
b. appears to have made a reality-monitoring error
c. is showing the misinformation error
d. is experiencing proactive interference
62. In studies of forgetting, the retention interval is the length of time
a. between the presentation of stimuli and the complete forgetting of the information
b. between the presentation of stimuli and the measurement of forgetting
c. during which the stimulus material is available to be studied by the subjects
d. over which the subject has 100 percent recall of the material
63. You move to a new house and memorize your new phone number. Now, you can't remember your
old phone number. This is an example of
a. retroactive interference
b. proactive interference
c. retrograde amnesia
d. motivated forgetting
64. To be MOST effective, a retrieval cue should be
a. congruent with the original encoding of material
b. similar in meaning to the material
c. similar in sensory appearance to the material
d. very distinctive in character
65. Skyler took part in a memory experiment. As he studied a list of words he was to remember, he
formed a vivid image of each object on the list. He was confident he would do well on the memory
test, but instead of asking for the actual words, they asked Skyler whether each word was printed
in italics or bold-faced type. Skyler did poorly on the memory test. Because he did not know how
he would be tested, Skyler
a. showed evidence of retroactive interference
b. did not use transfer-appropriate processing
c. experienced repression
d. experienced the misinformation effect
66. Which of the following terms is synonymous with "motivated forgetting"?
a. regressIon
b. repression
c. sublimation
d. rationalization
67. The long-lasting increase in neural excitability at synapses of a specific neural pathway is referred
to as
a. spreading cortical activation
b. long-term potentiation
c. transfer-appropriate excitation
d. an engram process
68. The profound anterograde amnesia thatH. M. experienced after undergoing surgery to control his
epilepsy suggests that
a. the prefrontal lobes are the storage area for most long-term memories
b. the hippocampal complex plays a key role in the consolidation of long-term
c. the cortex houses exact recordings of past experiences and events
d. long-term memories are processed and stored in the cerebellum
69. Procedural memory
a. is memory for factual information
b. is memory for actions, skills, and operations
c. is made up of chronological recollections of personal experiences
d. contains general knowledge that is not temporally dated

1 comment:

asd said...

Hi, is this an actual Athabasca final for PSYC289?